Corporate Business Alliance

CBA-CPM · Management

Specimen paper

Twelve examination items for the CBA Certified Procurement & Supply Manager, with the answer and a rationale for every option.

Examiner’s note

These twelve items come from the CBA-CPM bank and are spread across the six domains in the proportions the live paper uses: four foundational, six standard and two demanding. None of them rewards recall of a definition. Each puts you inside a decision, gives you the facts or the figures you need, and asks what follows from them. The commonest way to lose marks on this certification is not ignorance but the near miss: an option that names a real defect in the wrong direction, applies a sound method to the wrong formula, or reaches the right conclusion by reasoning that would fail on the next set of numbers. Read all four options before you commit to one.

Items

12

Domains

6

Questions in the examination

70

  1. 01Sourcing Strategy and Market AnalysisFoundational

    Al Munira Hospital Group in Kuwait asks for a spend baseline before its category strategies are rewritten. The analyst draws the report from the operating expenditure ledger, which totals USD 180m, and mentions in a footnote that a further USD 140m of medical equipment and building works was capitalised in the same year. What is the most important defect in the baseline as drawn?

    • A

      It omits employment cost, so the group's cost base is understated.

      This comes from reading a spend baseline as a picture of the total cost base rather than a map of third-party buying. Payroll is real money, but no category strategy can compete it, so adding it would swell the figure without producing a single sourceable line. It would be the right answer only if you had been asked what understates the group's total costs.

    • B

      It records spend at payment, so committed volumes are overstated.

      This option is attractive because it names a genuine defect that many baselines carry. The direction is reversed: recording at payment lags the commitment and therefore understates what has been committed, so the sentence contradicts itself. Even corrected, it would be a smaller fault than the missing USD 140m.

    • C

      It omits capitalised spend, so nearly half the buying is unexamined.

      Correct: the capitalised USD 140m is third-party, sourceable spend, and leaving it out puts nearly half the buying beyond the reach of every category strategy.

    • D

      It merges equipment with building works, so category detail is lost.

      This is a real limitation of the footnote, and it appeals because it sounds like the kind of thing an analyst should fix. It is a question of granularity, curable by a further breakdown, and it mistakes the level of detail for the scope. It would be the leading defect only once the capitalised spend was inside the baseline.

    Why that is the answer

    A spend baseline is a map of what leaves the organisation to third parties, and the accounting treatment of a purchase has no bearing on whether it can be sourced. Equipment and building works are bought from suppliers on terms that can be competed, so capitalising them moves them off the operating ledger but not out of the supply market. Here USD 140m of a USD 320m total sits outside the analysis, which means the largest single block of buying never reaches a category strategy at all. Build the baseline from third-party spend first and reconcile it to the ledgers afterwards, rather than accepting whatever one ledger happens to hold.

  2. 02Sourcing Strategy and Market AnalysisStandard

    A Kenyan mobile network reports that 71% of its network maintenance spend sits with eight suppliers, and the head of procurement concludes from this that the company holds strong leverage in the category. What is the flaw in that conclusion?

    • A

      Leverage depends on the length of the contracts held, not on annual share.

      Contract term is a real consideration, since it governs when you can next act, and that plausibility is what draws candidates here. It does not repair the inference: spend concentrated in short contracts with the only capable firm still confers no leverage. It would be the flaw only if the conclusion had rested on being able to move quickly.

    • B

      Leverage depends on how many firms could serve each item, not on share.

      Correct: leverage rests on the alternatives available for each item, which a concentration statistic does not measure at all.

    • C

      Concentration across only eight suppliers is too small a sample to read.

      This treats a share of actual spend as though it were an estimate drawn from a sample, so it reaches for a margin of error that does not exist. The 71% is a complete measurement of where the money went. The objection would only bite if the figure had been extrapolated from a subset of invoices.

    • D

      Concentration should be computed by corporate group, not ledger account.

      Consolidating trading names into their parent groups is sound practice, and it would push the concentration figure higher, which is why it feels like the expert answer. It improves the accuracy of a number that still says nothing about alternatives, so it corrects the measure while leaving the reasoning untouched.

    Why that is the answer

    Concentration tells you where your money goes; leverage tells you what you could do instead. The two coincide only where alternatives exist, and a large share placed with the only firm able to do the work is not power but exposure, because the supplier knows you cannot move. Read a concentration figure as a prompt for enquiry: it shows you which relationships deserve attention, and you then test each one against the number of credible alternatives. This distinction is examined in several forms on this certification, because it drives both sourcing strategy and negotiating position.

  3. 03Tendering and Supplier SelectionStandard

    A Danish food manufacturer receives four bids for a chilled logistics contract. Its rules permit clarification after the deadline but not negotiation. Which exchange with a bidder is a clarification?

    • A

      Asking which of two named depots the bidder means by the northern hub in its plan.

      Correct: it settles the meaning of what was already submitted and changes nothing in the bid.

    • B

      Agreeing a longer mobilisation period that the bidder says would lower its price.

      This is negotiation in plain terms, since programme and price both move, and it attracts candidates who reason that a better outcome for the buyer justifies the exchange. Value obtained after the deadline is value the other three bidders were never invited to offer. It would be permissible only under rules that allow post-tender negotiation, which these rules expressly do not.

    • C

      Accepting a method statement that the bidder intended to attach but left out of its bid.

      The generosity is the trap: intention is not submission, and admitting the document now gives that bidder a second attempt the others never had. It would be defensible only if the omission were the buyer's own fault, such as an evidenced portal failure, in which case you are restoring a bid rather than improving it.

    • D

      Allowing a bidder to confirm that an unpriced item is included in its tendered total.

      This looks like clarification because the bidder only confirms rather than adds a figure. In substance it reprices the bid after opening: an unpriced item is either included or missing, and resolving that ambiguity in the bidder's favour can invert the ranking. It would be a clarification only if the bid already stated somewhere that the item was included.

    Why that is the answer

    The boundary between clarification and negotiation is not how helpful the exchange feels but whether the bid changes. A clarification resolves what an already submitted bid means and leaves price, scope, risk and programme exactly where the bidder put them before the deadline. Anything that admits a document, alters a figure or moves a date hands one bidder something the others were not offered, however reasonable it looks in isolation. The test you can apply under pressure is simple: if the bid would have to be marked again after the exchange, you have negotiated.

  4. 04Tendering and Supplier SelectionDemanding

    A Kenyan mobile network published a weighting of 60 price and 40 quality, and scored price by giving the lowest bid 100 marks, the highest bid zero and interpolating between them. The four bids fell between GBP 4.1m and GBP 4.3m, and quality scores ran from 62 to 68. A losing bidder says the tender was decided almost entirely on price. What does the arithmetic show?

    • A

      Price accounted for the published 60 per cent, as the invitation stated

      This is the assumption the item exists to break, that publishing 60/40 delivers 60/40 whatever the scoring does. It confuses marks available with marks in play. It would be true only if both scales were used across their full range, and quality scores running from 62 to 68 show that they were not.

    • B

      Quality's influence rose, because the spread of prices was very narrow

      This inverts the mechanism. Under range scoring the whole 100-mark price scale is stretched across whatever spread arrives, so a narrow spread magnifies small money differences rather than muting them. The statement would hold under a pro rata formula anchored on the lowest bid, where a narrow spread does compress the price scores.

    • C

      Price accounted for about 96 per cent of the marks actually in play

      Correct: 60 weighted price marks moved against 2.4 weighted quality marks, so price settled roughly 96 per cent of the separation between the bids.

    • D

      Price accounted for about 54 per cent of the marks actually in play

      This is a competent calculation of the wrong formula. Under a pro rata model the 4.6 per cent price spread would move about 4.65 price marks, giving 2.8 weighted marks against quality's 2.4, or roughly 54 per cent. Applying a sound method to a formula the buyer did not use is the commonest way to lose a mark on questions of this type.

    Why that is the answer

    A published weighting sets the marks that are available; what decides an award is the marks that actually move between bidders. Range scoring spends the entire 100-mark price scale on whatever spread the bids happen to show, so a gap of GBP 200,000 becomes the full 60 weighted marks, while a quality spread of 6 points yields only 6 multiplied by 0.4, or 2.4 weighted marks. Sixty against 2.4 is about 96 per cent, so the losing bidder is right on the arithmetic even though the buyer applied the weighting it published. Model your formula against plausible bids before the invitation goes out, because the formula and the scale, not the weights, set the real balance.

  5. 05Contract and Supplier Relationship ManagementFoundational

    At a Kuwaiti hospital group, an estates supervisor telephoned the facilities contractor to add ventilation works to a live contract. The work was done and invoiced three months later at rates that appear nowhere in the contract. The contract manager wants to stop this recurring. Which change addresses the cause?

    • A

      Require variations to be instructed in writing by named people and priced before work starts.

      Correct: it places the control at the only moment when the buyer still has a choice, which is before the work begins.

    • B

      Require the contractor to invoice within thirty days of completing any varied work.

      This treats the three-month delay as the defect because the delay is the most visible feature of the story. Faster invoicing would deliver the same uncontracted rates sooner. It would be the answer if the problem were accrual accounting or cash forecasting rather than price control.

    • C

      Require the estates team to obtain three comparative quotations before instructing a variation.

      Competition is the right instinct pointed at an impossible moment: once the ventilation works are done there is nothing left to quote for, and on a live contract with a single incumbent there is often no second party to ask. It could work only as a discipline applied before instruction and only where the work could genuinely be placed elsewhere.

    • D

      Require the finance team to check every contractor invoice against the contract's rate schedule.

      This is a detective control operating after the money is committed, which is the standard reflex when an invoice surprises somebody. The stem defeats it twice over: the rates appear nowhere in the schedule, so the check has nothing to test against. It would help only for varied work priced on rates the contract already contains.

    Why that is the answer

    Competitive tension exists only before work is committed. Once the contractor has mobilised and finished the job, you have no alternative supplier, no comparison and no ability to decline, so whatever appears on the invoice was in effect agreed by the telephone call three months earlier. Change control therefore has to bite at the point of instruction: a named person with authority, a written instruction, and an agreed price or an agreed basis for pricing before anybody starts. Every control further down the chain is arguing about a commitment that has already been made.

  6. 06Contract and Supplier Relationship ManagementStandard

    Dhaka Knitwear Group's inbound freight contract pays a credit of USD 2,000 for each day a shipment is late, capped at 5% of the annual charge, a cap never yet approached. A day of lateness costs the buyer USD 30,000 in idle sewing lines. The carrier can avoid a typical three-day delay by chartering capacity at USD 25,000. Which conclusion should the buyer draw?

    • A

      The daily rate should be dropped, because credits never compensate for the loss actually suffered.

      This begins from a true observation, that credits rarely match the buyer's loss, and draws the wrong conclusion from it. Credits exist to change behaviour, not to indemnify; removing the rate leaves the carrier with no financial consequence at all and leaves you to prove a claim. It would follow only if the contract's purpose were compensation, which service credit regimes are not designed to serve.

    • B

      The daily rate is adequate, because the carrier bears a genuine cost each time it delivers late.

      This confuses bearing some cost with bearing enough cost, which is the central error the item tests. USD 2,000 a day is genuine money and still cheaper than performing. It would be right only if the credit for a typical delay exceeded the USD 25,000 the carrier would spend to prevent it.

    • C

      The daily rate sits below the carrier's cost of avoidance, so it prices delay rather than deterring it.

      Correct: USD 6,000 of credits against a USD 25,000 cost of avoidance makes lateness the cheaper option for the carrier.

    • D

      The daily rate sits below the buyer's daily loss, so the cap should be lifted at the next renewal round.

      The stem tells you the 5% cap has never been approached, so raising a ceiling that nothing has ever reached changes nothing about the carrier's decision. The option is attractive because it quotes the USD 30,000, which is the emotionally salient figure but not the one the carrier is weighing. Lifting the cap would matter only once the daily rate was high enough for the cap to bind.

    Why that is the answer

    A service credit alters behaviour only when failing costs the supplier more than performing. Look at the two figures from the carrier's side of the table: three days of lateness cost it USD 6,000 in credits, while preventing them costs USD 25,000 in chartered capacity, so a rational carrier accepts the delay and pays. Your own loss of USD 30,000 a day explains why you care, but it never enters the carrier's calculation. Calibrate a credit against the supplier's cost of avoidance first, then check that the cap sits high enough for the rate to keep biting.

  7. 07Negotiation for Procurement ProfessionalsStandard

    Nusantara Refining is renewing a caustic soda contract. Its own analysis sets a target of USD 420 a tonne and a walk-away limit of USD 470, above which an import route becomes cheaper. Its cost model of the supplier's plant indicates the supplier cannot sustain supply below USD 440 and is aiming for USD 500. Assuming both assessments are sound, what do they tell the negotiator?

    • A

      Agreement is possible between USD 420 and USD 470 a tonne.

      This takes your own target as the lower bound, which is the commonest confusion in the topic: an aspiration is treated as though the supplier were obliged to reach it. Anything between 420 and 440 is a price the supplier cannot sustain, so it is not available at any point in the negotiation. It would be the range only if the supplier's floor sat at or below 420.

    • B

      Agreement is possible between USD 440 and USD 470 a tonne.

      Correct: the overlap runs from the supplier's floor of USD 440 to your walk-away of USD 470, and only that band can settle.

    • C

      Agreement is possible between USD 420 and USD 500 a tonne.

      This spans the two targets rather than the two limits, which produces the widest and most comfortable-looking range on the page. It describes what each side would like, which is exactly the information a settlement range excludes. It would be right only if targets and limits were the same thing, in which case neither party would have prepared a limit at all.

    • D

      Agreement is possible between USD 440 and USD 500 a tonne.

      This handles the supplier's floor correctly and then substitutes the supplier's target for your own limit, making the same error as the first option but in the supplier's favour. Every price above 470 loses to the import route, so agreeing there would leave you worse off than walking away.

    Why that is the answer

    A settlement range is the overlap between two limits, and a limit is the point beyond which a party does something else instead. Yours is USD 470, above which the import route is cheaper; the supplier's is USD 440, below which it cannot sustain supply. Everything between those two figures is available to both parties and nothing outside them is, whatever either side says in the room. The two targets of USD 420 and USD 500 are aspirations, and keeping targets and limits separate in your own preparation is what tells you when to keep pushing and when the deal has genuinely run out of room.

  8. 08Negotiation for Procurement ProfessionalsDemanding

    Fjordvik Dairies funds itself at 9% a year. Its packaging supplier is funded by its listed parent at about 3% a year. The supplier offers a 0.5% discount on the annual spend if Fjordvik pays at 15 days rather than 45. Paying 30 days earlier means Fjordvik funds one twelfth of the annual spend for a year. What should Fjordvik do?

    • A

      Decline: the 0.5% discount is less than the 0.75% it would cost.

      Correct: funding one twelfth of annual spend for a year at 9% costs 0.75% of that spend, which is more than the 0.5% on offer.

    • B

      Accept: a certain 0.5% beats a funding cost that is only notional.

      This treats cost of capital as an accounting abstraction rather than a cash charge, which is how loss-making terms get signed. The 9% is what money actually costs Fjordvik. It would be defensible only if the company held surplus cash with no other use, and even then the right comparison is the return that cash would otherwise earn.

    • C

      Accept: the supplier's cheap parent funding makes the trade value creating.

      The observation is correct and the conclusion runs backwards. Cash should sit with the party for whom holding it is cheaper, which is the supplier at 3%, so the asymmetry argues for the supplier carrying the working capital for longer rather than for you paying sooner. It would support acceptance only if the rates were the other way round.

    • D

      Decline: early payment discounts sit outside the agreed payment terms.

      This reaches the right decision by the wrong route, which makes it the most dangerous option on the page. A procedural objection never engages the arithmetic, so it would decline a 2% discount as readily as this 0.5% one, and it leaves you with nothing to say when the supplier proposes varying the terms.

    Why that is the answer

    An early payment discount is a borrowing decision wearing commercial clothing. Paying 30 days sooner means funding one twelfth of the annual spend for a year at your own rate of 9%, which is 0.75% of that spend, against a discount worth 0.5%: the trade loses about a quarter of a per cent of annual spend for every year it runs. The rates also tell you which way the value flows, since cash costs the supplier 3% and costs you 9%, so the opportunity here is to seek longer terms and give part of the gain back in price. Convert every payment term proposal into a rate before you judge it.

  9. 09Inventory and Logistics FundamentalsFoundational

    Bayan Medical Group, a Kuwaiti hospital group, stocks a dialysis filter set used at a steady 40 sets a week. The supplier's lead time averages three weeks. Safety stock for the line has been calculated at 25 sets, and replenishment is ordered in batches of 40. The planner proposes a reorder point of 120 sets. What reorder point should be set?

    • A

      145 sets: lead time demand plus the calculated safety stock.

      Correct: 40 sets a week across a three-week lead time is 120, and the 25 sets of safety stock sit on top of that.

    • B

      120 sets: lead time demand, with safety stock held separately.

      This is the classic error and the one the planner has made: the buffer is treated as a reserve sitting behind the trigger rather than as part of it. Ordered this way, safety stock is consumed during every ordinary lead time and has gone before any disruption arrives. It would be the right figure only if the group had decided to carry no safety stock on the line.

    • C

      185 sets: lead time demand, safety stock and one order batch.

      This folds the 40-set order quantity into the trigger, mixing the two inventory questions. How much to order does not change when to order; adding it raises the stock held permanently by a batch and pays holding cost for no gain in service.

    • D

      160 sets: four weeks of average demand, a round month of cover.

      This substitutes a calendar rule of thumb for the calculation and lands near the right answer by coincidence rather than by method. Because it ignores both the measured lead time and the calculated safety stock, it will be wrong by any amount at all as soon as either figure changes.

    Why that is the answer

    The reorder point answers when to order, so it must cover everything that will be consumed between raising the order and receiving the delivery, plus the buffer held against variation. Forty sets a week over a three-week lead time is 120 sets of ordinary consumption, and the 25 sets of safety stock are added to that, giving 145. The planner's 120 is the trigger for a line carrying no buffer at all: order at 120 and the safety stock is eaten on every normal cycle, so it is never there for the late delivery it was calculated to cover. How much to order is a separate question with its own arithmetic, and it does not belong in this one.

  10. 10Inventory and Logistics FundamentalsStandard

    A Vietnamese garment buyer imports fabric on terms under which the seller arranges and pays for carriage to the named destination port, while risk passes to the buyer once the goods are handed to the first carrier. Seawater damages a container during the ocean leg. The buyer's shipping clerk says the seller must replace the fabric because the seller paid the freight. What is the flaw in that reasoning?

    • A

      Risk follows whoever holds the documents of title while the goods are at sea.

      This imports a test from the sale of goods and applies it to a delivery term that does not use it. Title and risk are themselves separate questions, and the parties have already stated where risk passes. It would bear on the outcome only if the contract expressly tied risk to transfer of the documents.

    • B

      The ocean carrier is liable in full, so no claim falls on the buyer or seller.

      This is the instinct to find a third party to pay, and there may well be a claim worth pursuing. Carriage regimes cap liability by weight or package, so recovery is usually partial, and somebody must still bring the claim: that somebody is the party carrying the risk, which here is the buyer.

    • C

      The seller bears risk until the goods are unloaded at the destination port.

      This is the clerk's confusion restated as a rule, treating the point where the seller's cost obligation ends as the point where its risk ends. It contradicts the stem, which puts risk transfer at the first carrier, and it would be right only under an arrival term where the seller does carry risk to the destination.

    • D

      Paying the carriage does not decide who bears risk; the two pass separately.

      Correct: cost and risk are allocated independently, so the seller paying freight to the destination says nothing about who bears a loss at sea.

    Why that is the answer

    Delivery terms allocate two separate things: who pays for carriage, and who carries the risk of loss or damage. They need not pass at the same place, and the stem tells you where each one sits, with the seller paying carriage to the destination port and risk passing to the buyer on handover to the first carrier. The seawater damage occurred after that handover, so the loss is the buyer's and the freight invoice is beside the point. The practical consequence is the one the clerk's reasoning would leave uncovered: under terms like these it is the buyer who needs the cargo insurance.

  11. 11Procurement Ethics, Sustainability and RiskFoundational

    An Omani petrochemical refinery is three weeks from awarding a five-year catalyst supply contract. One of the three shortlisted bidders invites the category manager to a technical seminar at its research centre, with flights and two nights' accommodation paid. The refinery's gifts policy sets a declarable value threshold and says nothing about timing. What should the category manager do?

    • A

      Accept and declare it in the register, since the value sits below the stated threshold.

      This applies the test the policy leads with and stops there, which is precisely the trap the item sets: the document mentions value and is silent on timing, so the candidate concludes that timing does not matter. A silent policy is incomplete, not permissive. Accepting and declaring would be defensible outside a live competition.

    • B

      Decline while the tender is live, and record the offer and the refusal in the register.

      Correct: declining for the duration of the tender and recording both the offer and the refusal protects the award and the bidder alike.

    • C

      Accept but pay the flights and accommodation from the refinery's own training budget.

      This assumes the exposure is the money and removes it neatly. What remains is what actually matters: two days of private access to the evaluator by one of three shortlisted bidders while their bids are being decided. Paying your own costs does not make that access available to the others.

    • D

      Accept and ask the other two bidders whether they wish to make an equivalent offer.

      This treats symmetry as equal treatment. Extending the same contact to everyone multiplies the private conversations with bidders during a live tender rather than curing the first one, and it obliges the other two to spend money to keep pace. Equal access to information is achieved through the tender documents, not through matched hospitality.

    Why that is the answer

    Hospitality is judged by context and timing rather than by value alone. Three weeks before award, private access between a shortlisted bidder and the person running the evaluation is capable of being connected to the decision, and that appearance is enough to damage the award whatever was actually discussed. Where a policy sets only a value threshold, it is incomplete rather than permissive, so you apply the standard the policy exists to serve. Recording the refusal matters as much as making it, because the register is your evidence that the approach was made and properly handled.

  12. 12Procurement Ethics, Sustainability and RiskStandard

    During an unannounced visit to an Indian textile mill supplying a Turkish apparel brand, the brand's auditor finds sixty workers engaged through an agent who deducts recruitment fees from their wages and holds their identity documents. The mill's own staff are unaffected. The sourcing director proposes terminating the contract at once and moving the volume elsewhere. What is the better first response?

    • A

      Secure the workers' documents and pay, then require a remediation plan with dates.

      Correct: the sixty workers are the people at risk, so returning documents, repaying fees and correcting the practice come before any decision about the contract.

    • B

      Terminate the contract at once and report the case to the relevant industry body.

      This is the response that feels decisive and reads well in a policy summary, and it is what the sourcing director has proposed. It ends the leverage that could have secured the remedy, leaves sixty workers without documents, fees or income, and lets the agent carry the same practice to the next mill. Termination is the right step later, for a supplier that will not or cannot remediate.

    • C

      Suspend orders pending an announced audit of the mill by an accredited assessor.

      Announcement is the flaw: a mill given the date presents prepared records, so the audit tests documentation rather than practice, and the unannounced visit has already found what an announced one would miss. Suspending orders also removes production and wages while the workers wait. An announced audit has its place in verifying a remediation plan, not in responding to findings.

    • D

      Require the mill to replace the agent and to confirm in writing that it has done so.

      This changes the counterparty on paper while every specific harm stays in place: the documents are still held, the fees are still deducted and the workers are still out of pocket. A written confirmation from the party that permitted the arrangement is an assertion, not evidence that it has ended.

    Why that is the answer

    Retained identity documents and wage deductions for recruitment fees are recognised indicators of forced labour, and your first duty runs to the sixty people affected rather than to the brand's exposure. Immediate termination protects the buyer and harms the workers, because it removes their income and leaves the fees unrepaid, the documents unreturned and the agent free to move on. Remediation first, with named owners and dates, and termination held in reserve for a supplier that will not or cannot put things right, is both the effective sequence and the accountable one. It also protects your own visibility, because a supply base that expects termination on discovery will make sure you discover nothing.

About these items

These twelve items are written to the specification of the live CBA-CPM paper, and none of them will appear on one. Every item in the bank is reviewed by a named subject-matter expert and audited for answer cueing domain by domain.